Question of the Week # 67, 68

Q67) A 44 year old woman presents to your office with pain and swelling of the small joints in his hands and wrists. The symptoms have been progressing over the past 4 months. She denies any fever or weightloss. She reports stiffness in his both hands that occurs every morning and lasts for 2 hours. On examination, she has symmetrical involvement of both the wrists and two of her left proximal interphalangeal joints. The involved joints are swollen and tender. Laboratory tests shows normal ESR, negative rheumatoid factor, and a negative anti-CCP antibody. X-ray of the wrist and hands reveal mild joint space narrowing with only very small peripheral erosions. The most appropriate next step in management :

A. Prednisone
B. Start NSAID and follow-up in one month.
C. Start NSAID and Methotrexate
D. Start Infliximab
E. Start NSAID and Hydroxychloroquine

Q68) The patient in the above question is started on appropriate therapy. He returns to your clinic in 1 month for regular follow up and his disease is well controlled with near complete remission. The most important next step in follow up of this patient :

A. DEXA scan in 1 year
B. PPD placement
C. Check hepatitis B serology
D. Ophthalmology referral at 3 months
E. Liver function tests

5 Responses

  1. b & c

  2. c & e
    This is RA factor negative rheumatoid arthiritis with evidence of joint damage and therefore NSAIDS plus a DMARD like methotrexate should be prescribed. LFTs should be monitored while on methotrexate therapy.

  3. c and e

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