Archer USMLE Step 3 CCS Live Webinar – January 2018

Live Workshop/ Webinar date: JANUARY 27TH 2018

Regsiter at https://register.gotowebinar.com/register/6510772772300949763

Interactive practice of USMLE Step3 CCS Cases.

The most time efficient strategy to pass USMLE Step 3! A component of Archer Live USMLE Reviews. Schedule ( Starts at 10 AM CDT i.e; 11 AM EST)

10 AM to 10:15 AM – Intro on the Webinar functions

10:15 AM to 12:15 PM – Recognizing Unstable vitals. – General approach to ER cases– Real time vs. Simulated time – Strategies to keep Simulated time low (ER) – Demonstration of high scoring strategies

12:15 pm to 12:30 pm – Q and A session

12:30 PM to 1:30 PM – Office case manAgement principles – General approach to office cases – Indications for admisiion – Scheduling follow up tests – Navigating the clock with ease to score more. – Demonstration of office cases

1:30 PM to 2:30 PM – Q and A session

2:30 PM to 4:00 PM – Lunch break

4:00 PM to 5:30 PM – Practice of very High Yield cases with one on one Q and A sessions

5:30 PM to 5:45 PM – Break

5:45 PM to 7:45 PM – Practice of Very Highyield CCS cases

7:45 PM to 8:00 PM – Break

8:00 PM to 9:00 PM – Case Practice, discussion and wrap-up!

Can’t make it to the Webinar ? Have exam before next live session? :   PPV recordings of most high-yield CCS workshops are readily available at https://archerreview.com/products?subexamid=4  Price: $88 and you may access those 24/7.

Interpreting Mixing studies – Hematology HigYield

via Interpreting Mixing Studies – Hematology Highyield Concept I

Interpreting Mixing Studies – Hematology Highyield Concept I

Recall!

Archer USMLE Step 3 Blog

Approaching Prolonged PTT and understanding Mixing Studies : 

ARCHER HEMATOLOGY REVIEW

Question :  On a mixing study, the PTT corrects initially but gets prolonged again after incubation for 2 hours. What is this condition?

This description of mixing studies is consistent with presence of a temperature- and time-dependent anti-VIII inhibitor. It just means that the inhibitor is a warm reacting IgG antibody that requires one or two hour’s incubation at 37°C to be detected. If the PTT corrects initially but prolongs again after incubation (meaning if thePTT is at least 15% longer than the normal reagent plasma’s incubated PTT ) –> anti-VIII should be suspected. This can be confirmed by obtaining a Factor VIII level which will be low in case of presence of inhibitor. Further coinfirmation of Factor VIII inhibitor can be obtained by Bethesda Titer. In such cases, you should also carefully review patient’s prior bleeding history –…

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Question of the Week #490

490. An 18-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department for evaluation of chest pressure for an hour. The pain is radiating to his jaw. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and he complains of nausea. Past medical history is unremarkable. Urine reveals positive benzolegonine. Below is his ECG. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?

ekg

A. Early repolarization

B. Ischemia

C. Cocaine induced myocardial infarction

D. Atrial fibrillation

E. Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome

Question of the Week #489

A 35 Year old woman presents for evaluation of recurrent headaches for the past few months.  Lately, she has been waking up with a headache almost daily though it tends to improve in the latter half of the day. She is frustrated as she can not even get some sleep during the attack since lying down makes her feel worse . She has associated nausea. She has transient attacks of light flashes  that resolve spontaneously. Her menstrual history is unremarkable. On physical examination, she has no neurological deficits. Funduscopic examination shown below: QBANK INSTA AD

Which of the following information, if elicited in the patient history, would increase the clinical suspicion of the diagnosis?

A)     Constipation

B)     Family history

C)      Recent weight gain

D)      Galactorrhea

E)   Urinary Incontinence

Question of the week # 488

A 31 Year old woman diagnosed with suspected diagnosis of Idiopathic intracranial hypertension underwent a lumbar puncture for diagnostic purposes. An MRI of the brain that was obtained prior to lumbar puncture did not reveal any structural abnormalities or mass effect. Laboratory investigations including coagulation parameters were normal. About 12 hours after the procedure, the patient complains of moderate to severe headache. Headache is mainly in the occipital region which increases while sitting up and improves on lying flat. She has two episodes of vomiting in the last one hour. She also complains of dizziness and ringing sensation in her ears.  Physical examination does not reveal any papilledema or focal neurological deficits.

Most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A) Blood cultures

B) MRI of the Lumbar Spine

C) Non-Contrast CT scan of brain

D) Observation

E) Acetazolamide

USMLE Step 3 Question #487

487) 57-year-old male with a history of mild COPD has been using albuterol as needed to manage his COPD without any other maintenance medications. Recently he has been experiencing a greater degree of shortness of breath, wheezing and a productive cough. Pulmonary function tests demonstrate a FEV1 that is 60% of predicted. What is the next best step for management of his COPD?

A. Add budesonide to treatment regimen

B. Add rofilumast to treatment regimen

C. Add tiotropium to treatment regimen

D. Add tiotropium plus fluticasone to treatment regimen

E. Add carbocystine to treatment regimen

 

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