Question of the Week # 119, 120, 121

119) A 60-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Room with massive hemetemesis. The onset is acute. She denies any alcohol use or  any antecedent nausea, vomiting or retching. On physical examination, the patient is found to be hypotensive with a blood pressure of 80/40. The patient is started on Intravenos fluids and proton pump inhibitors. Prothrombin time and liver function tests are with in normal limits. Hemoglobin is low at 7gm/dl and the patient is now being transfused with 2 units of packed red cells. An immediate Endoscopy is scheduled which revealed bleeding gastric varices but no esophageal varices. Local vasocontrictor therapy and band ligation could not restrain the bleeding. Ultrasound and CT scan of abdomen revealed enlarged spleen, an engorged splenic artery and an intraluminal filling defect in the Splenic Vein as shown in the picture below 

The most common etiology of the condition mentioned above :
A) Polycythemia Vera
B) Inherited Thrombophilias
C) Liver Cirrhosis
D) Chronic Pancreatitis
E) Carcinoma Pancreas
120) The pathophysiology behind the development of Varices in this patient :
A) Systemic Portal Hypertension
B) Superior Mesenteric Vein Thrombosis
C) Liver Cirrhosis
D) Sinistral Portal Hypertension
E) Angiodysplasia
121) The most effective treatment for the condition described above:
A) Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt
B) Thrombolysis
C) Anticoagulation with heparin
D) Splenectomy

Question of the Week # 118

118) A 30-year-old woman has been using oral contraceptive pillls, combination type for past 8 yrs. However, she also has a history of migraines. Lately, she has been experiencing an average of 14 episodes of severe migraine without aura yearly. Careful evaluation of her headache calender reveals that most of them occur exclusively during the pill-free week of her OC regimen. She has no history of smoking. She has never had DVT or family hx of thrombophilia. Her physical exam is normal without any neurological deficits. Next step in management ?
A. Switch to low dose estrogen pills
B. Switch to minipill
C. Discontinue OC pills
D. Start extended duration OC pills like seasonale

Question of the Week # 117

117) A 35-year-old woman with history of smoking 1 ppd x 15 yrs, comes to you 4 months after beginning OC pills. Shortly after starting OCs, she started experiencing headaches twice a week lasting  12 hours. The headaches are bilateral, throbbing, and accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light and sound. They are heralded by a 50-minute visual disturbance consisting of a “bright, zigzag lines” and then fades away as the headache begins. Upon questioning, she reports occasional similar headaches prior to OC use but they were not this bad and never had visual disturbances earlier. Her physical examination is normal. She is sexually active with one partner and desires effective contraception. Her partner does not like using condoms. The next step in management?
A. Reduce the dose of estrogen in the combination pill
B. Switch to mini pill
C. Ask her to convince her partner to use condoms
D. Reassure her and continue OC Pills
E. Stop OC pills and restart after one month.

Question of the Week # 116

116) A 26 year old woman has dysmenorrhea that has not responded to treatment with NSAIDs. Her past medical history is significant for migraine without aura and takes  Topiramate  for prevention of migraine. Her migraines are well prevented now. She is also sexually active and requests contraception. In view of her dysmenorrhea, OC pills have been recommended to her as it serves to address both the issues of contraception as well as her dysmenorrhea. But she tells you that she once read the package insert in the OC pills and also heard from her friends that she should not use OCPs because she has migraine. Her exam does not reveal any neurological deficits. She does not smoke and leads an active lifestyle. Her B.P  is 110/70. What is your best recommendation to her?
A. Reassure her and start OC Pills
B. Tell her to use condoms alone
C. Start minipill because OC pills may worsen her headache
D. Start OC pills but switch topiramate to valproic acid to prevent her migraines better

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Question of the Week # 115

115) A 44-year-old HIV-infected man with a CD4 count of 280cell/mm3 presents to your office for regular follow up. His viral load is undetectable. His HIV medications include tenofovir, lamivudine and Ritonavir for the past one year.  On examination, he has features of lipodystrophy. A fasting lipid panel reveals Total cholesterol 270 mg%,  LDL cholesterol 200mg%, Triglycerides 150mg% and HDL 40mg%.  He is advised to start low fat diet and exercise. The most important next step in controlling this patient’s hyperlipidemia.

A) Add Niacin

B) Add Simvastatin

C) Add Pravastatin

D) Add Lovastatin

E) Hold HAART therapy until lipids normalize

 

Question of the Week # 114

114) A 44-year-old HIV-infected man with a CD4 count of 280cell/mm3 presents to your office with complaints of fatigue, body aches, leg cramps and muscle pain. His viral load is undetectable. His HIV medications include tenofovir, lamivudine and Ritonavir for the past one year.  The patient was recently seen in the office for lipodystrophy and hyperlipidemia. His LDL cholesterol was 190 during last visit and hence, he was started on Simvastatin about 2 weeks ago. On  physical examination, he is afebrile and he has diffuse muscle tenderness. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of 3.2 mg/dL ( his baseline = 1.0 mg/dl), serum urea nitrogen = 55 mg/dL , total bilirubin 0.8gm/dl,  aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level of 632 U/L and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level of  140 U/L . Urinalysis was positive for blood on dipstick. Urine microscopy shows no red cells or white cell casts. The most likely reason behind the etiology of this patient’s renal failure :

A) Polymyositis

B) HIV associated Nephropathy

C) Tenofovir induced Nephrotoxicity

D) Interaction between Ritonavir and Simvastatin

E) HIV myopathy

 

Question of the Week # 113

113) A 44-year-old HIV-infected man with a CD4 count of 280cell/mm3 presents to your office with complaints of fatigue, body aches, leg cramps and muscle pain. His viral load is undetectable. His medications include tenofovir, lamivudine and Ritonavir.  The patient was recently seen in the office for lipodystrophy and hyperlipidemia. His LDL cholesterol was 190 during last visit and hence, he was started on Simvastatin about 2 weeks ago. On  physical examination, he is afebrile and he has diffuse muscle tenderness. Laboratory studies show a serum creatinine of 3.2 mg/dL ( his baseline = 1.0 mg/dl), serum urea nitrogen = 55 mg/dL , total bilirubin 0.8gm/dl,  aspartate aminotransferase (AST) level of 632 U/L and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level of  140 U/L . Urinalysis was positive for blood on dipstick. Urine microscopy shows no red cells or white cell casts. The most useful test in determining the etiology of the liver enzyme elevations in this patient:

A) Ultrasound Abdomen

B) Serum Creatinine Phosphokinase

C) Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGTP)

D) CT abdomen with contrast

E) Hepatitis C antibodies

Question of the Week # 112

A 30-year-old HIV-infected man presents to your office for evaluation regarding starting of Anti-retroviral therapy. The patient’s most recent CD4 count was 460 cells/mm3 and HIV RNA level of 20,000 copies/ml. He has  a history of Intravenos drug abuse. The patient was also noted to have elevated liver enzymes twice the upper limit of normal.  During the work-up for his liver abnormalities, his Hepatitis C is negative but Hepatitis B surface antigen returns positive consistent with hepatitis B active infection.  He has no HIV-related symptoms and has not had any AIDS-defining illnesses. The patient requests that he be started on Highly Active Anti-Retrovial therapy (HAART). Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for starting HAART in a HIV infected patient?

A) CD4 count of less than 500

B) HIV viral load greater than 50,000

C) Initiation of treatment for Hepatitis B co-infection

D) Renal Insufficiency with out proteinuria

E) All Reproductive age group HIV + women

Question of the Week # 110, 111

110.    A 45 year old HIV positive patient has been receiving Highly active anti-retroviral therapy. Her medications include Lamivudine, Zidovudine, Indinavir and Ritonavir. His most recent HIV viral load was undetectable and Absolute CD4 count was 400/µl .  Eight weeks after initiation of therapy, the patient comes to the emergency department complaining of  nausea, burning urination, frequency and severe flank pain. One week prior to this visit, the patient visited the ER for burning urination and was treated with Trimethoprim/Sulfamethaxozole. Urine cultures from last visit are negative. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum creatinine of 2.2. A urinalysis is negative for protein, nitrite and leucoesterase with out any bacteriuria. Urine microscopy reveals numerous WBCs and some starburst crystals. A non-contrast abdominal CT scan reveals mild right hydronephrosis without any evidence of stones. Patient is given adequate pain medications. The most likely etiology of this patient’s renal insufficiency :
a)    Acute Pyelonephritis
b)    Acute Bacterial Cystitis
c)    Indinavir Nephropathy
d)    Allergic Interstitial Nephritis
e)    HIV nephropathy

 

111. Most important next step in managing this patient’s renal failure :

A) IV hydration and Intravenos Ceftriaxone

B) IV hydration and Discontinue Indinavir for three days

C) IV hydration and Enalapril

D) Arrange for Hemodialysis

E) Discontinue Indinavir and refer for Lithotripsy

Question of the Week # 109

109) A 35 year old HIV positive male patient comes to your office with complaint of anorexia, nausea and vomiting and abdominal pain. His anti-retroviral medications include Stavudine and Didanosine. On physical examination, his temperature is 100F. His abdomen is tender in the epigastric area.  Laboratory results reveal WBC count of 20k/µl, Serum amylase 500 IU/L ( N =  25 to 160 U/L) , Lipase 590 units/liter (Normal = 25 to 300U/L), AST  120 IU/L, ALT 200 IU/L, Total bilirubin 3.6gm% and  Alkaline phosphatase 200IU/L . Ultrasound reveal gallstones with no cystic duct obstruction and no evidence of cholecystitis and a  common bile duct diameter of 1.5cm. The most important step that will help improve the patient’s acute pancreatitis is :

a)    Intravenos Imipinem/ Cilastatin
b)    Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography ( ERCP)
c)    Stop Didanosine
d)    Stop Stavudine
e)    Exploratory Laporotomy

Question of the Week # 108

108) A 34 year old man with history of schizophrenia and hypertension presents to your office with complaints of sore throat and low grade fever. He has mild cough. He denies any sick contacts. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 100F. Throat examination reveals mild erythema with no exudate. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. His medications include Metoprolol and Clozapine. The most important step in managing this patient :

A) Influenza Rapid Antigen Test

B) Throat Lozenges

C) Obtain Complete Blood Count

D) Oral Azithromycin

E) Discontinue Clozapine

Question of the Week # 107

107)  A 24-years old man with history of Hepatitis C is brought to the ER with history of attempted suicide by cutting his veins with a knife. His family members spotted him while trying to cut his wrist and could save him. He was immediately admitted to psychiatric ward of the hospital. On examination, his vitals are stable. The patient appeared very depressed. The wrist was bandaged and there is no significant bleeding. The patient has a history of depression for the past three years which was adequately controlled on Fluoxetine. Laboratory investigations revealed  ALT: 95 IU/ml , AST: 65 IU/ml, , Hemoglobin: 15.2 gr/dl, Platelet count: 345000/ml, WBC count: 6500/ml. Approximately 4 weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with HCV infection  after screening due to intravenous drug addiction history. At that time, HCV – RT PCR was positive, HIV ab  and Hepatitis B Surface antigen were negative. The patient was started on Interferon and ribavirin for Hepatitis – C infection. The patient denied any recent drug use. He has been compliant with his Fluoxetine. He reports  increased suicidal thoughts over the past few days. The most important next step in controlling this patient’s depression :

A) Electroconvulsive therapy

B) Discontinue Fluoxetine

C) Start Cyproheptadine

D) Discontinue Interferon

E) Start Clozapine to reduce suicidal tendency

Question of the Week # 106

105) A 46 year old man is seen in your office for complaints of severe fatigue over the last one week. The patient was diagnosed with chronic Hepatitis – C infection 2 weeks ago for which he was started on Interferon and Ribavirin. On examination, his vitals are stable and he is afebrile. Conjunctivae are notable for pallor.  Abdominal examination is benign except for mild splenomegaly.

Laboratory investigations :

WBC count of 3,ooo/µl

Hemoglobin of 5.8gm%

Platelet count of 60k/µl.

Total protein 6.8gm%

Albumin 3.2gm%

Total Bilirubin 3.2gm%

Direct bilirubin 0.8gm%

SGPT 52 U/L

SGOT 66 U/L

Alkaline Phosphatase 110U/L

Haptoglobin < 5.8

Reticulocyte count of 6.0%

Lactic Dehydrogenase 1200 IU/L

Serum creatinine 1.0

Peripheral blood smear reveals reduced platelets, polychromasia and anisocytosis. His laboratory tests 4 weeks ago were normal except for mild elevations in his liver enzymes.  The immediate next step in managing this patient is :

A) Parvo virus B19 antibodies

B) Endoscopy

C) Plasmapheresis

D) Stop Ribavrin

E) Intravenos Methylprednisolone

 

Question of the Week # 105

105) A 66 year old man presents to your office with complaints of productive cough and low grade fever for past two days. He denies any sick contacts. On physical examination, his temperature is 100F, breath sounds are reduced in left lower lobe. A chest x-ray reveals left lower lobe infiltrate. Laboratory investigations reveal WBC count of 12,ooo/µl with 80% neutrophils. Sputum gram stain and cultures are sent for. Blood cultures have been obtained and are pending.  He received a Flu vaccine about one month ago but never received a pneumococcal vaccine. The next important step in managing this patient:

A) Oral Azithromycin

B) Oral Levofloxacin

C) Admit the patient

D) Swallowing evaluation

E) PPD skin test

Question of the Week # 104

104) A 65 year old man presents to your office with increasing abdominal distension and bilateral leg swelling. He is accompanied by his daughter. He reports his symptoms started 3 months ago and progressively worsening. He smokes about one pack cigarettes per day and drinks one pint vodka every day. His last drink was 1 day ago. On examination, he is afebrile and he has abdominal distension and ascites with out any tenderness on palpation. Lab studies show  WBC 8k/µl, Hemoglobin of 10.2 gm%, Platelets 90k/µl, Total protein of 6.4, Albumin 2.2, SGOT 300, SGPT 130, Total Bilirubin 4.2 , Direct Bilirubin 3.3, Prothrombin time of 19 seconds and Creatinine 2.2. Ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver and splenomegaly. The daughter asks  you if her father can be considered for Liver transplantation. The most common indication for liver transplantation in the United States :

A) Alcoholic Liver Disease

B)Chronic  Hepatitis B

C) Acute Liver Failure

D) Hepatitis C

E) Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

Question of the Week # 102, 103

102) A 65 year old man presents to your office with increasing abdominal distension and bilateral leg swelling. He reports his symptoms started 3 months ago and progressively worsening. He smokes about one pack cigarettes per day and drinks one pint vodka every day. His last drink was 1 day ago. On examination, he is afebrile and he has abdominal distension and ascites with out any tenderness on palpation. Lab studies show  WBC 8k/µl, Hemoglobin of 10.2 gm%, Platelets 90k/µl, Total protein of 6.4, Albumin 2.2, SGOT 300, SGPT 130, Total Bilirubin 4.2 , Direct Bilirubin 3.3, Prothrombin time of 19 seconds and Creatinine 2.2. The patient undergoes diagnostic paracentesis which reveals a total protein of  1.4, albumin of 0.6, WBC count of 400 with polymorphonuclear neutrophils of 100cells/ml. Bacterial cultures are pending. The most important step in managing this patient is :

A) Intravenos Ceftriaxone

B) Intravenos Corticosteroids

C) Intravenos Albumin Infusion

D) Trans-jugular Intrahepatic Porto-systemic Shunt (TIPS)

E) Arrange for Liver Tranplant

F) Furosemide and Spironolactone

103) The most important factor that should be considered in determining the etiology of this patient’s Ascites:

A) Fluid WBC

B) Fluid  Albumin

C) Fluid Total protein

D) Serum – Ascites- Albumin – Gradient

E) Serum Albumin and Prothrombin time

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Question of the Week # 101

Q101.) A  65 y/o man with presents to your office with complaints of exertional chest pain for the past 4 weeks. The chest pain is usually left sided, occurs on walking about one block and goes away with rest. He denies any chest pain now. He also reports no change in quality or intensity of his chest pain He also reports having been diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease about 2 months ago for which he was advised exercise therapy. He does experience leg pain on walking about one block which also improves with rest. His past medical history is significant for moderate COPD, Hypertension and a hernia repair about 3 years ago. His medications include lisinopril, hydrochlorthiazide and tiotropium inhaler. Physical examination is benign. The next best step in establishing the diagnosis in this patient is :
A) 2 D -Echocadiogram
B) Exercise Stress  Test ( Treadmill Stress Test)
C) Dobutamine Stress Echocardiogram
D) Persantin Stress Test
E) Cardiac Catheterization

Question of the Week # 100

Q100) A 52 year-old man presents to your office with complaints of exertional chest pain for the past 4 weeks. The chest pain is usually left sided, occurs on walking about three blocks and goes away with rest. He has developed a habit of taking rest when the chest pain comes and he did not think it needed medical attention until his friend told him yesterday that it might be a symptom of heart disease. He is concerned and requests your recommendation. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath now. He also reports no change in quality or intensity of his chest pain. His past medical history is significant for Hypertension and Smoking . His medications include lisinopril and hydrochlorthiazide. Physical examination is benign. The next best step in establishing the diagnosis and prognosis in this patient is :

A) Electrocardiogram
B) 2 D -Echocadiogram
C) Exercise – EKG Stress Test
D) Persantin Stress Test
E) Cardiac Catheterization

Question of the Week # 99

Q99) A  65 y/o man with presents to your office with complaints of exertional chest pain for the past 4 weeks. The chest pain is usually left sided, occurs on walking about three blocks and goes away with rest. He has developed a habit of taking rest when the chest pain comes and he did not think it needed medical attention until his friend told him yesterday that it might be a symptom of heart disease. He is concerned and requests your recommendation. He denies any chest pain now. He also reports no change in quality or intensity of his chest pain. His past medical history is significant for pacemaker insertion for a symptomatic second degree heart block,  Hypertension, and Smoking . His medications include lisinopril, atenolol and hydrochlorthiazide. Physical examination is benign.  An EKG is obtained which reveals pacemaker rhythm with secondary ST-T changes. The next best step in establishing the diagnosis in this patient is :
A) 2 D -Echocadiogram
B) Exercise Stress  Test ( Treadmill Stress Test)
C) Dobutamine Stress Echocardiogram
D) Persantin Stress Test
E) Cardiac Catheterization

Question of the Week # 98

Q98) A 68 year old man with history of DM type II, Hypertension and severe osteoarthritis presents to your office with complaints of chest pain on exertion for past 3 months. He denies any pain now.  His only medications are Glyburide, Metprolol, Enalapril and Metformin. An EKG is obtained in the office and it reveals non-specific ST segment changes.  While undergoing the test, the patient develops severe chest pain and headache. EKG monitor reveals  > 2mm ST depressions in the anterior leads. The technician immediately terminates the dipyridamole infusion. After 2 minutes of cessation of infusion, the patient continues to have chest pain. His blood pressure is 88/68 mm hg. The next step in managing this patient :

A) Order Cardiac enzymes

B) Start Heparin infusion

C) Administer Intravenos Aminophylline

D) Reassure the patient that symptoms will improve in few minutes

E) Urgent Cardiac Catheterization

Question of the Week # 97

Q97) A 68 year old man with history of DM type II, Hypertension and severe osteoarthritis presents to your office with complaints of chest pain on exertion for past 3 months. He denies any pain now.  He smokes about one pack cigarettes per day. His only medications are Glyburide, Metprolol, Enalapril and Metformin. An EKG is obtained in the office and it reveals non-specific ST segment changes.  The patient is scheduled for Dipyridamole stress test .  The patient should be advised regarding which of the following:

A) Avoid Aspirin or NSAID for 24 hours prior to testing

B) Stop Metprolol 24 hours prior to tesing

C) Avoid Coffee or Caffeine for 24 hours prior to testing

D) Avoid smoking for one week prior to testing

E) Start inhaled Albuterol two days prior to testing

 

Question of the Week # 96

Q96) A 65 year old man with history of DM type II presents to your office with complaints of chest pain that he has been having lately. He denies any pain now. He says his chest pain is more left sided and about 5/10 in intensity and it appears after walking about 2 blocks. The pain disappears after resting for a while. He has been having these chest pain episodes for the past 3 months.  He also reports severe crampy leg pain that occurs in his both legs which is also relieved by rest. He denies any shortness of breath. He has smoked about 1 pack per day for the past 40 years. He denies any cough.  His only medications are Glyburide and Metformin. An EKG is obtained in the office and it reveals non-specific ST segment changes. Next important step in managing this patient:

A) CT angiogram of Chest

B) Exercise Treadmill Stress test

C) Obtain Cardiac Enzymes

D) Dipyridamole Stress test

E) Start Calcium Channel Blocker

Question of the Week # 95

Q95). A 62 year old man with history of  DM Type II and Coronary Artery Disease presents to the Emergency room with right leg pain and swelling.   The pain and swelling started 2 days ago and has been increasing. He denies any fever, chest pain or shortness of breath. He was recently admitted to the hospital 10 days ago for Non ST elevation Myocardial infarction. The patient was treated at that time with medical management that included Heparin, Clopidogrel, Aspirin and Beta blockers. The patient was discharged with instructions to continue aspirin, clopidogrel and metoprolol. At the time of discharge. his labs were all with in normal limits. He says he has an appointment with his cardiologist’s office next week for further work-up. He denies any bleeding. Physical examination reveals ankle tenderness and mild swelling of the right lower extremity up until his mid thigh. Laboratory investigations reveal a WBC of 5100, HGB 14.2 and a platelet count of 40k/µl ( N = 160 to 400k/µl. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time with in normal limits. A venos doppler reveals a common femoral to popliteal DVT in his right lower extremity. Next step in managing this patient ?

A) Start Low Molecular Weight Heparin

B) Start Warfarin

C) Place Inferior Vena Cava Filter due to bleeding risk

D) Start Lepirudin

E) Platelet Transfusion

Which of the following is most likely to establish the diagnosis in this patient?

A) Lupus Anticoagulant Profile

B) Anti Platelet Factor 4/ Heparin antibodies

C) Factor V leiden mutation

D) Prothrombin gene mutation

E) Peripheral Blood Smear

 

Question of the Week # 94

A 62 year old man presents with right leg pain and swelling.   The pain and swelling started 2 days ago and has been increasing. He denies any fever, chest pain or shortness of breath. He has no significant past medical history. There is no family history of clots. His last visit to a doctor’s office was 30 years ago. He denies any weightloss or dyspepsia or melena or rectal bleeding. Physical examination reveals ankle tenderness and mild swelling of the right lower extremity up until his mid thigh. Laboratory investigations reveal normal complete blood count with prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time with in normal limits. A venos doppler reveals a common femoral to popliteal DVT in his right lower extremity. The patient is started on Low Molecular Weight heparin. The next important step in evaluating the hypercoaguilabilty in this patient?

A) Protein C level

B) Protein S level

C) Anti thrombin III level

D) Screening Colonoscopy

E) CT scan of the abdomen and Pelvis.

F) Heparin Induced Platelet Antibodies

Question of the Week # 92, 93

Q92) 67 year old african american man presents to your office for regular check up. He has no significant past medical history. He underwent a screening colonoscopy 5 years ago that was normal . He underwent a PSA testing 3 months ago and it was 2.5. The  patient denies any complaints. He denies any fatigue or recent weight changes. He denies alcohol use or smoking. He does not use any medications at home. Physical examination is normal.  Routine  laboratory investigations reveal a WBC count of 4200/µl, Hemoglobin of 9.6gm% , Mean Corpuscular Volume of 106, Reticulocyte count of 1%  and Platelet count of 152,000/µl. Peripheral smear reveal macrocytosis and hyposegmented neutrophils.  B12 level 540 pmol/L, TSH 2.0 ( N = 0.3 – 4.2) miU/L and Folic acid level is with in normal limits. Lactic Dehydrogenase is 170 *( normal). Haptoglobin is 220( normal). Most likely etiology of this patient’s anemia?

A) Iron deficiency

B) Subclinical Vitamin B12 Deficiency

C) Subclinical Hypothyroidism

D) Hemolytic Anemia

E) Myelodysplatic Syndrome

Q93) The next best step in obtaining the diagnosis :

A) Serum Ferritin

B) Methylmalonic Acid Level

C) Free T4 and T3 level

D) G6PD level

E) Bone marrow biopsy

Question of the Week # 90, 91

Q90) A 57 year old hispanic woman is admitted to the hospital with right leg cellulitis. The patient is started on intravenos antibiotics. She is afebrile. Physical examination reveals erythema and tenderness in right lower extremity. Venos Doppler is negative for DVT. Her past medical history is significant for chronic alcoholism and liver cirrhosis. Laboratory investigations reveal a WBC count of 1700/µl with absolute neutrophil count of 800, Hemoglobin of 10.2gm% and Platelet count of 52,000/µl. Peripheral smear reveal reduced platelets and no evidence of any abnormal cells. B12 and folic acid level as well as Iron studies are with in normal limits. Blood cultures are negative at Day 1.  HIV serology, Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are negative. Antinuclear antibodies are negative. Reticulocyte count is 4% and Lactic Dehydrogenase is 170 *( normal). Haptoglobin is 220( normal). A hematology evaluation is obtained and a bone marrow biopsy performed to evaluate her pancytopenia. BM biopsy reveals hypercellualar bone marrow with no dysplatic features. The most important next step in evaluating this patient’s pancytopenia?

A) CT scan of the abdomen

B) Parvo virus B19 Antibodies

C) CT scan of the chest to rule out Thymoma

D) Methyl malonic acid level

E) Flow cytometry for CD58 and CD59

 

Q91) Most likely cause of this patient’s Pancytopenia?

A) Hypersplenism

B) Parvovirus B19

C) Aplastic Anemia

D) Sub clinical Vitamin B12 deficiency

E) Acute Leukemia

F) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

Question of the Week # 89

A 61-year-old man is admitted because of altered mental status. On physical examination, he is afebrile. Laboratory studies show sodium 136 mmol/L, potassium 4.4 mmol/L, chloride 108 mmol/L, CO2 30 mmol/L, glucose 78 mg/dL, urea nitrogen 49 mg/dL, calcium 13.8gm%, creatinine 5 mg/dL, hemoglobin 8.9gm%, total protein 8.3 g/dL, albumin 3.7 g/dL, alkaline phosphatase 116 U/L, AST 45 U/L, ALT 22 U/L, and total bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL.  The patient is started on aggressive Intravenos hydration. Which of the following may be typically seen with this patient’s disease?

A) Hypercellular Bone marrow with many blasts

B) Serum protein electrophoresis with polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

C) An increase in all immunoglobulins ( IgA, IgG and IgM)

D) A negative anion gap

E) Increased Alkaline Phosphatase

F) A positive bonescan

Question of the Week #88

Q88) A 75 year old woman is sent from the nursing home for evaluation of fever and altered mental status. The patient’s past medical history is significant for moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. On examination, she is confused. Her vitals reveal Temperature of 102F, Blood pressure 80/60 and a HR of 102/min. Chest and cardiovascular examination is benign. On abdominal examination, the patient moans upon palpation of right upper quadrant. Cholecystitis is suspected and ultrasound is obtained that reveals very distended gall bladder with pericholecystic fluid, a normal caliber common bile duct and a gall stone in the cystic duct. The patient is started on IV Normal saline and broad spectrum antibiotics. Her blood pressure despite initial hydration is still 80/40. She is started on Norepinephrine drip. The next most important step in managing this patient ?

A. Urgent Cholecystectomy

B. Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography

C. Percutaneous Cholecystostomy

D. 2D echocardiogram

E. Exploratory Laporotomy

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