Question of the Week # 429

429) A 72-year-old man presents for an out patient follow up after being discharged from the hospital two days ago. He was admitted for a transient ischemic attack on the right side of his body which resolved spontaneously. He was worked up and subsequently discharged. Review of his in-patient investigations reveal a carotid doppler which revealed 100% stenosis of the left carotid artery and a 40% stenosis of the right carotid artery. He smoked about 1 pack per day for past several years. His past medical history includes chronic atrial fibrillation for which he has been on Aspirin alone. During the last admission, he was started on Coumadin as well. Today, his INR is therapeutic at 2.5 . His fasting lipid profile shows a calculated LDL cholesterol of 60mg%.  On examination, there are no neurological deficits. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. In addition to recommending smoking cessation and lifestyle changes along with continuation of coumadin, which of the following is most appropriate at this time?

A) Carotid Endarterectomy of Right Carotid Artery

B) Carotid Stenting of left carotid artery

C)  Carotid Endarterectomy of Left Carotid Artery

D) Carotid Magnetic Resonance Angiography

E) No other intervention indicated

Question of the Week # 428

428) A 32-year-old male boxer presents to the emergency room after sustaining an injury during a local boxing match.  He was punched by the opponent over his right ear about six hours ago . He complains of pain and swelling over his right ear. He has no hearing deficit or tinnitus or headaches or blurred vision. He denies nausea or vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, his vitals are stable. His right ear is red, warm and swollen with a medium sized anterior auricular swelling which is tender to palpation. There is no facial swelling. If untreated, which of the following would be most likely course of this injury?

A) Spontaneous Resolution

B) Hearing Deficit

C) Permanent ear disfigurement

D) Otitis Externa

E) Mastoiditis

Question of the Week # 427

427) A 32-year-old male boxer presents to the emergency room after sustaining an injury during a local boxing match.  He was punched by the opponent over his right ear about six hours ago . He complains of pain and swelling over his right ear. He has no hearing deficit or tinnitus or headaches or blurred vision. He denies nausea or vomiting. Past medical history is unremarkable. On examination, his vitals are stable. His right ear is red, warm and swollen with a medium sized anterior auricular swelling which is tender to palpation. There is no facial swelling. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A) Compressive dressing

B) Needle aspiration of the Hematoma

C) Cold compresses, analgesics and antibiotics

D) Incision and Drainage

E) Observe and await  spontaneous hematoma resolution

Question of the Week # 426

426) A 70-year-old man with history of atrial fibrillation and metallic mitral valve presents to the out patient clinic for follow up. He has been taking warfarin for the past 5 years. His INR has been in therapeutic range between 3.0 to 4.0. However, over the last one month his INR has been in the range of  1.5 to 2.0 . His other medical problems include moderate osteoarthritis and mild cognitive dysfunction. He started taking Glucosamine supplements for “preserving his joints “and Ginseng to slow “ageing of his brain”  about two months ago. He has also been started on Aspirin by his cardiologist about 1 month ago. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Abdominal examination is benign. A repeat INR is still sub-therapeutic at 1.5. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A) Increase Warfarin dose by 20%

B) Stop Glucosamine and repeat INR in 1 week

C) Continue Warfarin at same dose and repeat INR in 1 week

D) Stop Ginseng and repeat INR in 1 week

E) Stop Aspirin, increase Warfarin dose and repeat INR in 1 week

Question of the Week # 425

425) A 80 day old african american woman with advanced dementia is admitted to the intensive care unit for overwhelming sepsis secondary to a urinary tract infection. At presentation she was hypoxemic and was subsequently, intubated and placed on a ventilator. Blood and urine cultures are obtained and she is started on antibiotics A chest x-ray post-intubation shows endotracheal tube in place and bilateral diffuse alveolar infiltrates. On examination, his pulse is 110/min, Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and respiratory rate is 18/min with the patient on Assist-Control mode on the ventilator. Pulse oximetry reveals 88% on Fio2 90%. Chest examination reveals diffuse crackles. Cardiac examination reveals tachycardia, there is no S3 gallop. Brain natriuretic peptide level is 50 pg/ml . A 2D echocardiogram shows normal left ventricular function with an ejection fraction of 60%. His ventilator settings are as follows : Assist-Control mode; Fio2 ( Fraction of inspired oxygen) : 90%, Respiratory rate : 18/minute, Tidal Volume : 500 ml, PEEP ( Positive End expiatory Pressure) : 5 cm H20 . Arterial blood gas analysis reveals ( on Fio2 70%): pH : 7.36, pCo2 : 45 mmHg, pO2 : 55 mm Hg, Bicarbonate : 23 Meq/L

Which of the following is indicated at this time?

A) Intravenous Furosemide

B) Swan-Ganz Catheter Placement

C) Increase PEEP by 3 cm H20

D) Increase Tidal Volume to 650 ml

E) Increase Fio2 to 100%

Question of the Week # 424

424) A 3 day old male infant is evaluated for a rash that developed previous night and has been progressing. The rash first started on his face as flat red patches but now it has become bumpy and some of them have pus in it. The baby is breast feeding and there is no history of fever. The mother is healthy and none of the family members are sick at home. The baby was born by an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. On examination, he is afebrile. There are numerous small flat red patches along with yellowish-white papules and numerous pustules all over his trunk and extremities. The lesions on his face seem to be resolving. Palms and soles are not involved. A Wright-stained smear of pustular fluid shows numerous eosinophils and occasional neutrophils. A picture of the rash is shown below:

 

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Miliaria

B) Eosinophilic Pustular Folliculitis

C) Erythema Toxicum

D) Milia

E) Staphylococcal Pyoderma

Question of the Week # 424

424)  A 30 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of  right lower extremity swelling and pain over the past two days. He has had recurrent diarrhea with loose, watery bowel movements for several weeks without any blood in it. He also reports developing a red, scaly rash around his nose, mouth , genital area and on the buttocks.  He has itching and pain in the areas affected by the rash. He denies any fever or night sweats or weightloss.  He does not drink alcohol. He is sexually active with his girl friend and always uses condoms. On examination, his vitals are stable. Cardiac and respiratory examination is normal. There is  angular cheilitis.  Laboratory investigations reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia. Stool analysis does not show any leucocytes or blood and is negative for ova and parasites. Venous doppler reveals right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis extending up to common femoral vein. Skin examination shows findings as below:

 

In addition to starting anticoagulation, which of the following should be performed next?

A) Serum Zinc Level

B) CT scan of the abdomen

C) Protein C and S levels

D) Serum Glucagon Levels

E) Factor V leiden mutation

Question of the Week # 423

423) A 14 month old male baby is brought to your office by his concerned mother for recurrent diarrhea over the past 2 months. He also developed a scaly rash around his mouth, on the cheeks and on buttocks. He has been exclusively breast-fed for about 8 months and has been started on gradual weaning process over the last four months. He is otherwise, a healthy child. There is no family history of eczema. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Physical examination shows lesions around the ano-genital area as shown below :

Similar lesions are seen over his cheeks and around the mouth. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Exclusive Breastfeeding

B) Serum Lead level

C) Serum Zinc level

D) Glucoagon level

E) Sweat Chloride Level

Question of the Week # 422

422) A 54-year-old man with history of Diabetes Mellitus and End-Stage Renal Disease is evaluated in your office during a follow up visit after undergoing hemo-dialysis in the morning. He has been dependent on Hemo-Dialysis  for past four years and undergoes dialysis thrice a week. He reports recurrent epigastric abdominal pain that is burning in quality which is relieved by taking over the counter antacids. He denies any pain at this time. He denies any nausea or vomiting. He has no history of alcohol use or smoking. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Abdominal examination is benign. Laboratory investigations are as follows:

WBC  8.0K/µL

Hemoglobin 10.5gm%

Serum amylase 200 IU/L ( N =  25 to 160 U/L)

Serum Lipase 150 IU/L (Normal = 25 to 80U/L)

AST  30 IU/L

ALT 40 IU/L

Total bilirubin 0.6gm%

Alkaline Phosphatase 80IU/L .

Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Ultrasound of the Gall Bladder

B) Nothing by mouth and IV hydration

C) No further investigations or treatment

D) Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio Pancreatography

E) CT scan of the Abdomen

Question of the Week # 421

421) A 34-year-old woman with history of oligomenorrhea presents to your clinic to discuss her results of recent work-up. One week ago, she has undergone extensive work-up for her menstrual abnormality. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone, serum prolactin  level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone levels are within normal limits. Serum total testosterone is 120ng/dl ( N = 30 to 90ng/dl) and serum free testosterone is 0.9 ng/dl ( N= 0.4 to 0.8 ng/dl) . A dehydro-epiandrosterone level is 400 mcg/dl (45- 270 ug/dL) . A pelvic ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in the ovaries bilaterally. On examination, she is obese with a BMI of 32. She has excess thick and pigmented hair above her upper lip and on the chin. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Fasting Plasma Glucose

B) Random Blood Glucose

C) Hemoglobin A1C

D) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

E) Start Metformin

Question of the Week # 420

420) A 34-year-old woman with past medical history of Hypothyroidism presents to the outpatient clinic for follow-up visit. She delivered a health male baby about one week ago and has been breast feeding without any issues. She has no complaints. During the pregnancy she required increase of her levothyroxine dose to 0.175 mcg from  her usual pre-pregnancy dose of 0.125mcg. Her TSH level about 2 weeks ago was 2.0µu/ml. She denies any cold or heat intolerance, weakness or constipation. On physical examination, vitals are stable. There is no goiter. Deep tendon reflexes are normal.  Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?

A) Decrease Levothyroxine to pre-pregnancy dose and recheck TSH in 6 weeks

B) Repeat TSH in 6 weeks before dose adjustment

C) Increase Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 6 weeks

D) Repeat TSH now

E) Obatin Thyroid Peroxidase antibodies

Question of the Week # 419

419) A 26-year-old woman presents for an ante-natal check up after her home pregnancy test showed positive result. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism for which she has been using 125 mcg of levo-thyroxine for the past five years. She did not require any dose adjustment of her thyroid hormone therapy in the past 4 years. Her most recent thyroid stimulating hormone level ( TSH) was performed 2 weeks ago and was 2.5µU/ml ( N = 0.5 to 5.0 µU/ml). She denies any cold intolerance, weakness or constipation. She has gained about 2 lbs weight in the past one month. On physical examination, vitals are stable. There is no goiter. Reflexes are 1+ in bilateral lower extremities and there is 1+ pre-tibial edema. Laboratory investigations reveal :

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone :  2.5 µU/ml( N = 0.5 to 5.0 µU/ml)

Serum Total T4: 13.9 µg/dl ( N = 5 to 12µg/dl)

Serum Free T4 :  1.9 ng/dl ( N = 0.9 to 2.4ng/dl)

Which of the following is the most recommendation?

A) Decrease Levothyroxine and recheck TSH in 4 weeks

B) Continue same dose Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 4 weeks

C) Increase Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 4 weeks

D) Repeat TSH in 8 to 10 weeks

E) Check Serum thyroid binding globulin levels

Question of the Week # 418

418) A 76-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity for the past 2 months. The pain appears upon standing or walking down the stairs for past few weeks. Her pain gets better upon walking uphill and when she sits down to rest. There is no history of limb swelling. On examination, vitals are stable. Pulses are palpable but slightly diminished in lower extremities. Reminder of physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis ?

A) Peripheral Artery Disease

B) Chronic Venous Insufficiency

C) Lymphedema

D) Deep Vein Thrombosis

E) Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

Question of the Week # 417

417) A 72-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity upon walking a block for past few weeks. The pain gets better with rest. There is no history of limb swelling. On examination, vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable with out any swelling or tenderness in her extremities.

Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

a) Peripheral artery disease

b) Chronic Venous insufficiency

C) Lymphedema

d) Deep Vein Thrombosis

e) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens

Which of the following is indicated next?

A) Venous Doppler

B) Compression Stockings

C) Clopidogrel

D) Check blood pressure at ankle and elbow levels

E) Leg elevation

Question of the Week # 416

416) A 60-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. She presents with increasing swelling and mild pain in her right lower extremity over past several months. The pain is present all the time and does not get better with rest. The swelling has progressively increased and now, she has unsightly thickening of the skin. On examination, there is non-pitting edema of the entire right lower extremity. The skin is thickened and can not be pinched and lifted.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Chronic Venous Insufficiency

B) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens

C) Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens

D) Lymphedema

D) Peripheral Arterial Disease

Question of the Week # 415

415) A 60-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity upon walking. The pain gets better with rest. On examination, there is mild swelling of her right extremity with a 2 cm very shallow, clean, weeping ulcer on the medial malleolus with granulation tissue in the base. There is hyperpigmentation surrounding the ulcer. There is no “pitting”  of the swelling and the skin can be easily lifted from the subcutaneous tissues. Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial artery pulses are mildly diminished.

Which of the following is indicated for her ulcer at this time?

A) Leg elevation and absorbent dressing

B) Antibiotics

C) Compression stockings

D) Anti-coagulation

E) Angiography

Question of the Week # 414

414) A 62-year-old software engineer presents with complains of mild pain and swelling in his right lower extremity which has been progressively increasing over the past 6 months. The swelling is more towards the end of the day. Pain is worse on walking or standing and gets better with rest. On examination, vitals are stable. There is non-pitting edema of right lower extremity below the level of the knee. The limb looks normal above the level of the knee. There is some bluish discoloration of the skin over the distal portion of the leg. Small intradermal bluish vessels are noted in the skin of her right lower extremity. Dorsalis pedis and tibial pulses are intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Chronic Venous Insufficiency

B) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens

C) Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens

D) Lymphedema

D) Peripheral Arterial Disease

Question of the Week # 413

413)  A 60-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Now, she presents with pain in her right lower extremity that started about one week ago and is progressively worse. Over the last two days, she developed bluish discoloration of the right great toe . On examination, her vitals are stable. There is gross swelling of the entire right lower extremity with bluish discoloration of right great toe and extreme tenderness . Dorsalis and posterior tibial artery pulses are slightly diminished. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Chronic Venous Insufficiency

B) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens

C) Phlegmasia Cerulea Dolens

D) Lymphedema

D) Peripheral Arterial Disease

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