Question of the Week # 267

267 )  A 32 year old woman is evaluated in your office for increasing headaches over the past few months. She has a 5 year history of intermittent headaches. The headaches are throbbing in nature and are localized to frontal area. They are often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Her episodes are usually preceded by irritability and food craving. She usually takes ibuprofen at the onset of headache which seem to relieve her pain. She recently broke up with her partner and has been under severe emotional stress since then. Lately, her headaches have become more frequent occurring about 4 to 5 times per month. The episodes interfere with her quality of life. She denies any headache at this time.  Physical examination including neurological and ophthalmoscopic exam is normal.  Her last menstrual period was 16 weeks ago and a urine pregnancy test returns positive. Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for this patient?

A) Biofeedback

B) Lumbar puncture

C) Start Propranolol

D) Start Sumatriptan

E) Start Valproic acid

Question of the Week # 266

266 )  A 70 year old man is evaluated in the emergency room for severe fatigue and exertional shortness of breath. He was diagnosed with pulmonary embolism 4 months ago and is on Coumadin. He denies any melena or hematochezia. There is no other history of gross bleeding.  On examination, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg and he is afebrile.  Physical examination is normal. Stool for occult blood is negative.  His hemoglobin one month ago was 12gm/dl. Laboratory investigations reveal:

WBC 10k/µl

Hemoglobin 6.2 g/dL,

Mean cell volume (MCV)  102  fL

Platelet count 170k/µl

Lactic Dehydrogenase 140U/L

Haptoglobin 100U/L

Reticulocyte count 12%

INR : 8.0

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

a) Direct Coombs Test

b) Vitamin B12 and Folate levels

c)  Bonemarrow biopsy

d) Start Corticosteroids

e) CT scan of the Abdomen

Question of the Week # 265

265 )  A 52 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of increased thirst and increased urinary frequency. Her other medical problems include Hypertension and Dyslipidemia. Blood pressure has been under control on enalapril. Her family history is significant for diabetes mellitus and Hypertension.  Physical examination reveals an obese woman in no apparent distress. Blood pressure is at 135/80 mm Hg. Velvety thickened skin is noted in bilateral axillae. Which of the following results will establish the diagnosis that could explain the symptoms and physical examination findings in this patient?

A) Random plasma glucose > 180mg%

B) Hemoglobin A1c > 6.5%

C) Fasting Blood Sugar > 110 mg%

D)  Oral Glucose Tolerance Test  , plasma glucose ≥120 mg% at 2 hours

E)  Urine glucose > 300 mg%

Question of the Week # 264

264 )  A 52 year old woman presents to your office with complaints of increased thirst and increased urinary frequency. Her family history is significant for diabetes mellitus and Hypertension. A glucometer reading obtained in the office shows 260mg%. Hemoglobin A1C is 7.0% . The patient is subsequently started on Metformin. Three days after starting Metformin, she presents with nausea and diarrhea. She denies any fever or abdominal pain. Physical examination is within normal limits. Random glucometer reading shows 130mg%. Comprehensive metabolic panel is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient’s symptoms?

A) Discontinue Metformin

B) Check lactic acid level

C) Recommend Metformin to be taken with meals.

D)  Check serum ketones

E) Insulin drip

Question of the Week # 263

263 )  A 69 year old man with history of metastatic prostate cancer is admitted with nausea, vomiting and constipation of three days duration. He denies any abdominal pain. He was seen in the oncology clinic for severe bone pain and was started on sustained release Oxycodone as well as short acting oxycodone one week ago. His pain is well-controlled but he is distressed by his  newly developed symptoms.  On examination, his temperature is 98F, Heart rate is 130/min, Respiratory rate 20/min and Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg. Chest is clear to auscultation and abdominal examination is benign. Obstructive series is negative for bowel obstruction. A CT scan of the adbomen does not reveal any small bowel obstruction. The patient is given promethazine and metoclopromide for vomiting. Which of the following opiod-induced adverse effects are expected to be persistent despite continued use of opiod analgesics ?

A) Nausea

B) Drowsiness

C) Constipation

D) Respiratory depression

E) Itching

Question of the week # 262

262) A 17 year old male is admitted with fever and severe pain while swallowing for the past 1 week. He denies any rash or joint pains. His girlfriend had similar symptoms 1 month ago that resolved spontaneously. He was started on azithromycin by his primary doctor as outpatient however, the symptoms have not subsided. On examination, temperature is 102F. Throat examination reveals diffuse pharyngeal erythema and swelling of the tonsils with exudates. There are no mucosal ulcerations. Abdominal examination reveals moderate splenomegaly. Laboratory investigations reveal WBC count 12000/µl with 60% Lymphocytes, Hemoglobin 14gm% and Platelet count 120k/µl. Peripheral smear shows atypical lymphocytes comprising 30% of lymphocyte population. Liver panel reveal mild elevation of transaminases with AST 80U/L and ALT 96U/L. Total bilirubin is 0.6gm%. A heterophile antibody test is negative on two occasions. Ebstein Barr Virus serology including EBV viral capsid antigen (VCA) – IgM and IgG as well as EBV nuclear antigen antibody (EBNA-IgG) has been ordered. Which of the following combinations are most consistent with this patient’s presentation?

A)     VCA IgG  negative, VCA IgM negative, EBNA-IgG positive

B)      VCA IgG  positive, VCA IgM negative, EBNA-IgG positive

C)      VCA IgG  negative, VCA IgM negative, EBNA-IgG negative

D)     VCA IgG  positive, VCA IgM positive, EBNA-IgG positive

E)      VCA IgG  positive, VCA IgM positive, EBNA-IgG negative

Question of the Week # 261

261 )  A 30 year old woman presents to your office for a routine physical examination. She feels well and denies any symptoms. Her past medical history is significant for mediastinal Hodgkin’s lymphoma diagnosed at the age of 18 years. She was treated with chemotherapy and involved field radiation therapy at that time. She has a history of hypothyroidism that was diagnosed 8 years ago and has been on levothyroxine therapy. A Thyroid Stimulating Hormone level 2 months ago was within normal limits. Physical examination reveals normal vitals. There is no palpable goiter.  Rest of the physical exam is unremarkable. Routine labortatory investigations and chest x-ray are normal.  Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient at this time?

A)   PET/ CT scan

B)    CT scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis

C)     Mammogram

D)     Cardiac catheterization

E)    Anti-microsomal antibodies

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