Question of the Week # 446

446) A 64 year old woman presents to your office with productive cough and fever for the past three days. About two months ago, she was admitted for pneumonia. Past medical history is significant for Rheumatoid arthritis. Her medications include hydroxychloroquine and prednisone. Previously, she was treated with Azathiprine for about 6 years.

On examination, temperature is 101F, blood pressure 120/80 and heart rate of 106/min.  Chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds at left lower lobe. No hepatomegaly, spleen tip is palpable. Chest X-Ray reveals left lower lobe consolidation  Labs reveal WBC 1000/µl with differential count showing neutrophils of 30% and Hemoglobin 9.9 gm%

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s presentation?

A) Hypogammaglobulinemia from Rheumatoid arthritis

B) Marrow suppression by Hydroxychloroquine

C) Marrow toxicity by Azathiprine

D) Myeloproliferative disorder

E) Felty Syndrome

Question of the week # 444

444) A 25 year old woman is seen by you today due to an abnormal blood count. Three weeks ago, she volunteered for blood donation and a complete blood count that was drawn at that time showed abnormal values. She has regular menstrual periods with normal flow. Her last menstrual period was one week ago.  Her previous blood count was done several years ago and she is unaware of being told they were abnormal. A complete blood count is as follows :

WBC 5.5k/µl

HGB: 12.1 gm%

MCV 84 fl

Platelets : 800k/µl ( Normal 140k to 340k/ul)

Differential count : Neutrophils : 64% Lymphocytes 30% Monocytes 4%

Which of the following is the most important next step?

A) Obtain Bone Marrow Biopsy

B) Order Transferrin Saturation

C) Obtain Jak-2 Mutation Analysis

D) Obtain Arterial Blood Gases

E) Start her on Aspirin

Question of the Week # 443

443 ) A 38 year old man is evaluated in your office for a chronic rash on his elbows. He reports this has been worsening over the last 6 months and is intensely itchy. He lost about 8lbs weight in the past 6 months. Review of systems is normal except for 4 to 5 episodes of loose stools every day. Laboratory investigations reveal moderate microcytic anemia. On examination, he is afebrile. There is a vesicular rash on the extensor aspects of his bilateral elbows as shown below:

elbows

Which of the following is most helpful in diagnosing this condition?

A) Fecal occult blood testing and Sigmoidoscopy

B) Anti-nuclear antibodies

C) Anti-Endomysial antibodies

D) Small bowel follow through

E) Anti-Sacharomyces Cerviseae antibodies ( ASCA)

Question of the Week # 435

435) A 29 year old woman is seen in your office for fatigue and exertional shortness of breath of 2 week duration. Past medical history is significant for hospitalization for splenic vein thrombosis 1 year ago. She received heparin 1 year ago and therafter, coumadin for 6 months. She is off anticoagulation now. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory Studies reveal

WBC 2400/µl

HGB: 6.8 gm%

MCV 84 fl

Platelets : 80k/µl

Reticulocyte count 4.5%

Haptoglobin : Undetectable

Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) 800U/L

Direct Coombs Test : Negative

Which of the following is the best step in diagnosing this condition?

A) Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

B) Flow cytometry

C) Osmotic Fragility Test

D) Urine Hemosiderin

E) Heparin Antibody Testing

Question of the Week # 434

434) A 44 year old woman is evaluated in your office for one month history of worsening fatigue. She also reports tingling and numbness in bilateral lower extremities. Her past medical history is significant for morbid obesity for which she underwent gastric bypass surgery four years ago. She has lost about 80lbs weight since her surgery. Her medications include oral ferrous sulfate, folic acid and vitamin b-complex. Physical examination reveals absent ankle jerks. Laboratory Studies reveal WBC 5400/µl HGB: 9.8 gm%, MCV 74 fl, Platelets : 300k/µl, Serum ferritin 280ng/ml, Transferrin saturation 26% . A bone marrow aspirate smear is shown below :

Archer USMLE

Which of the following is the most likely cause of patient’s presentation?

A) Iron deficiency

B) Copper deficiency

C) Vitamin B12 deficiency

D) Zinc deficiency

E) Pure red cell aplasia

Question of the Week # 433

433) A 27 year old woman with no significant past medical history presents to your office after she sustained an accidental cut from a clean, new kitchen knife. She has no significant family history. She does not smoke or drink. She enjoys hanging out in beaches over the weekends and sun tanning. She however, noticed that she tans very quickly when compared to her friends. She received Tetanus immunization as a child and her last tetanus booster was 1 year ago. She also reports she recently visited her gynecologist office at which time some routine labs were done. She has the copies of her lab reports with her which reveal:
WBC : 10k/µl

HGB: 15gm%

Platelets : 300k/µl

Iron : 150 mcg/dL

TIBC: 200 mcg/dl

Transferrin saturation : 75%

Serum Ferritin : 220 ( N= 12 to 200 ng/ml)

Further investigations revealed homozygos state for C282Y mutation. On examination, her skin is golden tan in color. She has a  1cm cut on her palm which is clean. The wound is cleaned with soap and water.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

A) Instruct her to increase Vitamin C intake to promote wound healing

B) Administer Tetanus Immunoglobulin

C) Administer Tetanus Toxoid

D) Instruct her to avoid contact with sea water until the wound is healed

E) Instruct her to increase Red Meat Intake

 

 

Question of the Week # 431

431) A 25 year old G2P1L1 at 32 weeks gestation presents with right leg swelling and pain progressively increasing over the past two days. Her previous pregnancy was uneventful except for uncomplicated C-section and she has a 2 year old healthy male child. Past medical history is negative for any significant health issues. There is no family history of clots or cancer.  Physical examination is consistent with 32 week gestation. Right lower extremity is swollen about 3cm more in calf-circumference when compared to the left. There is tenderness in right calf. A Doppler ultrasound reveals thrombosis in superficial femoral vein. Factor V leiden mutation, Lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardioloipin antibodies, prothrombin gene mutation are negative. Anti-thombin III is within normal limits. She is scheduled for C-section in 6 weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate Statement concerning her management?

A)     Since this is not deep vein thrombosis, start her on LMWH ( Low Molecular Weight Heparin) at prophylactic doses

B)      Start warfarin and continue for total 6 months

C)      Start LMWH, discontinue 2 days prior to C-section, start unfractionated heparin followed by discontinuation 4 hrs prior to C-section and then start LMWH 12 hrs after surgery followed by Warfarin for 6 months.

D)     Start LMWH, discontinue 2 days prior to C-section, start unfractionated heparin followed by discontinuation 4 hrs prior to C-section and then start LMWH 12 hrs after surgery followed by Warfarin for 6 weeks post-partum

E)      Start LMWH now through delivery followed by warfarin for 6 months post-partum.

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