Question of the Week # 36

A 25 year old woman presents to your office with history of genital lesions. The patient says that she has has read about genital warts on the internet and is now very concerned that she might be suffering from the same. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and does not want him to get infected with her condition. Physical examination reveals lesions that are are flesh-colored, soft pearly papules found on the inner aspects of  labia minora which are  symmetrically distributed on  either side of the vulva and are easily seperable from each other.

A concerned woman in a doctor's office. What is the Next Step?

Next Step in the Management:

A) Topical Imiquimod

B) Trichloroacetic Acid

C) Treat both patient and her partner with Podophyllin

D) Re-assurance

E) Oral Acyclovir

Copy Rights: USMLEGalaxy

3 Responses

  1. D). Re-assurance as they are vestibular papillomatosis

  2. reassurance

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