284) A 32 year old pregnant woman is evaluated in the emergency room for new onset abdominal pain. She has mild nausea and vomited once prior to arrival in the emergency room. She denies any bleeding . This is her first pregnancy and she is at 34 weeks gestation. Physical examination reveals normal blood pressure. There is mild tenderness in epigastric region. Laboratory investigations reveal:
WBC 10k/µl
Hemoglobin 7 g/dL,
Mean cell volume (MCV) 84 fL
Platelet count 50k/µl
Lactic Dehydrogenase 1200U/L
AST 120U/L
ALT 180U/L
Serum Electrolytes, Creatinine, Prothrombin time and Partial thromboplastin time are within normal limits. Amylase and lipase are normal. A peripheral blood smear shows reduced number of platelets and some fragmented red blood cells. Antinuclear antibodies, Anti-phospholipid antibodies, Lupus anticoagulant profile, HIV testing and Hepatitis C are negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Platelet transfusion
B) Intravenous Methyl Prednisolone
C) Induction of labor
D) Observation
E) Plasmapheresis
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C
C
HELLP syndrome, C
C…..She is at 34 weeks of gestation, so no need steroides. She has a DIC because a HELLP syndrome so before any complication and blleding, we need to induce the labor.
ccc
b is the ans, we need to give steroid before induction, because surfactant maturation of lung
CC: HELLP Syndrome.. Induction of labour. Steriods is indicated before 34 weeks.
C