Question of the week # 274

274) A 76 year old obese woman with history of uncontrolled Hypertension and Type 2 Diabetes  is evaluated in your office during a follow-up visit. She has history of atrial fibrillation and has been taking warfarin for stroke prevention. However, she has difficulty keeping up with her appointments for INR monitoring and does not wish to continue warfarin. Mini mental status examination reveals mild dementia. Get up and Go test does no show any increased risk of fall. She denies any active bleeding. Rest of her physical examination is unremarkable. Her INR is 1.3 and her previous INRs have been sub-therapeutic. Laboratory investigations including complete blood count, serum creatinine and liver function tests are within normal limits. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?

A) Aspirin alone

B) Aspirin and Dipyridamole

C) Reduced intensity warfarin

D) Low Molecular Weight Heparin

E) Dabigatran

7 Responses

  1. d is the answer i suppose

  2. E. Direct thrombin inhibitor- Dabigatran is contraindicated when CrCl<30.

  3. E

  4. e

  5. dabigatran

  6. E=dabigatran, Asprin is an alternative for moderate-risk patients. When the risk is significant and the INR cannot be maintained within the target range despite close monitoring, dabigatran is the alternative to warfarin, provided the patient is closely monitored, especially for changes in renal function.

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