Question of the Week # 176

Q176) A 48 Year old woman is evaluated in your office for a skin eruption that appeared few days ago. She has a history of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that was treated 2 years ago and is in remission. A PET ( positron emission tomography) scan that was performed 3months ago did not reveal any evidence of recurrent disease. She also reports recurrent episodes of genital herpetic lesions which  resolve spontaneously. Her most recent genital herpetic eruption was 4 weeks ago and it was self-limited. At this time, she is concerned about a skin eruption that is predominantly distributed on her arms, hands and feet.  On examination, there is no peripheral lymphadenopathy. Genital examination is normal with out any vesicles or papules. Skin examination reveals the lesions as shown in the image below.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The most appropriate management option for this patient:

A)     Observation

B)      Repeat PET/CT scan

C)      Start Acyclovir

D)     Biopsy of the lesion

E)      Start antihistamine

4 Responses

  1. aaaaaaaa

  2. D- IT MAY BE SKIN LESION DUE TO T CELL LYMPHOMA

  3. A

  4. C: Erythema multiforme with history of recurrent herpes infection in lymphoma patient. start aciclovir

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