Question of the Week # 453

Your patient is a gravida 1 para 0,  19 year old female at 33 weeks gestation that presents with a complaint of heavy vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain for an hour. Her pregnancy has been uneventful, and she is in good health, although she continues to smoke cigarettes, admitting to one pack per day.

Blood pressure is 110/80 with a heart rate of 110. The patient is afebrile, with respirations of 20/minute. Examination reveals a contracted uterus with a closed cervical os. The patient expels a large amount of blood from her closed cervix during the examination. Fetal heart rate monitoring reveals severe late decelerations. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

A. Expectant management with bed resT

B. Terbutaline

C. Oxytocin

D. Magnesium sulfate

E. Caesarean section delivery

Question of the Week # 452

Your patient is a gravida 2 para 2 female with a complaint of a vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and dysuria. Her symptoms have recurred 4 times within the past year. She had a recent urinary tract infection that was treated with ciprofloxacin, but is in otherwise good health. She is afebrile with normal vital signs, and pelvic examination reveals vulvar and vaginal erythema with a thick white discharge in the vaginal vault. KOH prep reveals pseudo hyphae. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for this patient?

hyphae

a. Oral fluconazole 150 mg x 1
b. Probiotic lactobacilli
c. No treatment is necessary
d. Oral Fluconozole induction followed by maintenance.
e. Topical miconazole x 7 days

Question of the Week # 394

394)  A 36 year old woman with Type I diabetes mellitus presents to your office because she just learned that she is pregnant. She is excited and seeks your advise. Her home blood sugars are well controlled on a basal-bolus regimen of Glargine and Lispro insulin. Her other medications include Atorvastatin and aspirin. Her most recent HgbA1C was 6.0%. Her records also reveal that her most recent fasting lipid profile met the therapeutic goals at LDL of 80mg% and Non-HDL cholesterol of 100mg%. On examination, she is comfortable. Vitals are stable and reminder of the examination is unremarkable. An office based serum pregnancy test is positive. A repeat fasting lipid profile reveals Total Cholesterol : 250 mg% LDL cholesterol (calculated) 140mg%, HDL – cholesterol 40 mg%, Triglycerides 350mg%.  Liver function tests , Serum electrolytes, Creatinine and Complete blood count are within normal limitsWhich of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A) Therapeutic Abortion

B) Add Niacin to her Lipid Regimen

C) Discontinue Statin and Start Niacin

D) Discontinue Statin and advise Diet modification alone

E) Increase Atorvastatin

Question of the Week # 308

308)  A 76-year-old man presented with a 4-month history of recurrent vertigo. He reports feeling a sensation of spinning dizziness on turning the neck to his left. He also reports left sided headaches and decreased hearing on the left. Each episode lasted about 15 to 20 minutes and occurred when he turned his head to the left. He denies any ringing sensation in ears,  nausea or vomiting. He denies any chest-pain, shortness of breath or palpitations.  His past medical history is significant for hypertension and diet controlled diabetes. His medications include  hydrochlorothiazide and enalapril. He also has history chronic neck pain due to cervical spondylosis for which he uses tylenol. On examination, his blood pressure in supine position is 140/88 mmHg and  blood pressure on standing is is 130/86. Tympanic membranes are visible and there is some cerumen in the left ear. Using a 512Hz tuning fork , bone conduction is found to be better than air conduction on the left and Weber test shows lateralization to the left. Dix-Hallpike’s and Lhermitte’s signs are negative. There are no other neurological deficits. Gait is normal. Range of motion of the neck is limited on lateral movements and neck pain is elicited by turning to left side. An X-ray of cervical spine shows severe spondylosis with discopathy and osteophytes from C2 to C4 vertebrae.  Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his Vertigo?

A) Orthostatic Hypotension

B) Vertebral artery occlusion from cervical spondylosis

C) Cerumen Impaction

D) Meniere’s disease

E) Labyrinthitis

Question of the Week # 307

307) A 35 year old woman is evaluated in your office during an antenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. She tells you that 2 weeks after she missed her regular menstrual period she checked herself with home pregnancy kit and tested positive. She works in a day-care center. She is concerned now because she received Rubella vaccination 4 weeks ago after an exposure to a sick child without knowing that she was pregnant. She read about the dangers to fetus on the internet and is very worried. Physical examination is benign.

Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

A. Refer her to medical termination of pregnancy
B. Tell her that there is a high established risk to fetus and she should strongly consider termination of pregnancy
C. Counsel her about theoretical risk to fetus and continue pregnancy care
D. Administer Rubella immunoglobulin
E. Reassure her that there is no risk to fetus.

Question of the Week # 207

207)  A 30 year old  pregnant woman with 32 week gestation presents with severe itching that is present through out the day and  interferes with her sleep at night. The itching is more on palms and soles. She had a similar problem during her previous pregnancy. She denies any history of eczema or liver disease in the past. Physical examination reveals excoriations on the skin. There are no papules, wheals or plaques. There is no scleral icterus. Laboratory investigations reveal an elevated Asparate aminotransferase ( AST) 140u/l , Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 150u/l, alkaline phosphatase at 280U/L ( Normal 40 to 120U/L) and Total bilirubin 2.2mg%. Complete blood count is with in normal limits. Hepatitis profile is negative. Which of the following is the most common complication associated with this entity:

A) Hepatic Failure

B) Fetal Prematurity

C) Renal Failure

D) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

E) Severe Post-Partum Hemorrhage

Question of the Week # 206

206)  A 30 year old  pregnant woman with 32 week gestation presents with severe itching that is present through out the day and  interferes with her sleep at night. The itching is more on palms and soles. She had a similar problem during her previous pregnancy. She denies any history of eczema or liver disease in the past. Physical examination reveals excoriations on the skin. There are no papules, wheals or plaques. There is no scleral icterus. Laboratory investigations reveal an elevated Asparate aminotransferase ( AST) 140u/l , Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 150u/l, alkaline phosphatase at 280U/L ( Normal 40 to 120U/L) and Total bilirubin 2.2mg%. Complete blood count is with in normal limits. Hepatitis profile is negative. The most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A) Serum Bile Acid level

B) Liver Biopsy

C) Ursodeoxycholic acid

D) Immediate delivery

E) Long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) mutation testing

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