Question of the Week # 479

479. A 57 year old female presents for second opinion of a left breast lesion that had been diagnosed as ‘eczema’ by her regular nurse practitioner, which briefly improved after a short course of topical steroids. On physical exam there is an erythematous, scaly lesion involving the left breast. Image is shown below. Her last mammogram was a year ago and it was “fine”. She does not report any family history of breast cancer. What is the next step in the patient’s management?

image br rash

A – Bilateral breast ultrasound

B – Bilateral mammography and punch biopsy of nipple

C – Maintain regular annual mammography appointment

D – Oral corticosteroids

E – Left breast MRI

Question of the Week # 454

Your patient presents at 33 weeks gestation. She is a 27 year old gravida 2 para 1 female with a previous pregnancy complicated by pre-eclampsia, with a vaginal delivery of a healthy infant at 37 weeks. Her current pregnancy has been uncomplicated, but today she is experiencing abdominal pain and uterine contractions that began 5 hours prior to presentation. She states that she has had some fluid leaking from her vagina since the previous evening, but denies vaginal bleeding, trauma, urinary urgency or frequency.

Her temperature is 101.6 degrees Fahrenheit. Blood pressure is 98/60, heart rate is 100/minute, with respirations of 18/minutes. On pelvic examination, she has clear fluid in the posterior fornix, which causes nitrazine paper to turn blue in color. She is dilated to 4 centimeters and her cervix is 60% effaced. Her uterus is diffusely tender on examination and the fetal heart rate is 175 beats per minute, with frequent accelerations. Maternal white blood cell count is 13,000/mm3.

What is the next step in the management of this patient?

A. Initiation of ciprofloxacin

B. Urine culture

C. Initiation of ampicillin and gentamycin

D. Cesarean delivery

E. Induction of labor.

Question of the Week # 453

Your patient is a gravida 1 para 0,  19 year old female at 33 weeks gestation that presents with a complaint of heavy vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain for an hour. Her pregnancy has been uneventful, and she is in good health, although she continues to smoke cigarettes, admitting to one pack per day.

Blood pressure is 110/80 with a heart rate of 110. The patient is afebrile, with respirations of 20/minute. Examination reveals a contracted uterus with a closed cervical os. The patient expels a large amount of blood from her closed cervix during the examination. Fetal heart rate monitoring reveals severe late decelerations. What is the best treatment option for this patient?

A. Expectant management with bed resT

B. Terbutaline

C. Oxytocin

D. Magnesium sulfate

E. Caesarean section delivery

Question of the Week # 452

Your patient is a gravida 2 para 2 female with a complaint of a vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and dysuria. Her symptoms have recurred 4 times within the past year. She had a recent urinary tract infection that was treated with ciprofloxacin, but is in otherwise good health. She is afebrile with normal vital signs, and pelvic examination reveals vulvar and vaginal erythema with a thick white discharge in the vaginal vault. KOH prep reveals pseudo hyphae. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate for this patient?

hyphae

a. Oral fluconazole 150 mg x 1
b. Probiotic lactobacilli
c. No treatment is necessary
d. Oral Fluconozole induction followed by maintenance.
e. Topical miconazole x 7 days

Question of the Week # 421

421) A 34-year-old woman with history of oligomenorrhea presents to your clinic to discuss her results of recent work-up. One week ago, she has undergone extensive work-up for her menstrual abnormality. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone, serum prolactin  level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone levels are within normal limits. Serum total testosterone is 120ng/dl ( N = 30 to 90ng/dl) and serum free testosterone is 0.9 ng/dl ( N= 0.4 to 0.8 ng/dl) . A dehydro-epiandrosterone level is 400 mcg/dl (45- 270 ug/dL) . A pelvic ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in the ovaries bilaterally. On examination, she is obese with a BMI of 32. She has excess thick and pigmented hair above her upper lip and on the chin. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Fasting Plasma Glucose

B) Random Blood Glucose

C) Hemoglobin A1C

D) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

E) Start Metformin

Question of the Week # 406

406)  A 65 year old woman is evaluated in your office for urinary problems. She reports involuntary loss of urine upon coughing almost daily for few months. She presented with similar problems 6 months ago and has been advised pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle modifications . These measures have not improved her symptoms. She denies any nocturia, frequency, hesitancy or urgency symptoms. She has no other medical problems On examination, vitals are stable. Pelvic examination reveals changes consistent with vaginal atrophy. When she is asked to cough in lithotomy position, there is large urinary leakage about 30 seconds after coughing which was difficult for her to stop. Complete blood count, Plasma glucose, Serum electrolytes and Urinalysis are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A) Start Vaginal Estrogen

B) Recommend Vaginal Pessary

C) Obtain Urodynamic Studies

D) Mid-Urethral Sling  placement

E) Trial of Alpha-Adrenergic Agonists

Question of the Week # 405

405)  A 80 year old woman with advanced dementia is sent to your office for evaluation of a vaginal ulcer. The patient has a history of Stage III uterine prolapse. She had been fitted with a pessary for control of her symptoms about 6 months ago. She has no history of fever or chills. On examination, she is afebrile, blood pressure is 130/80. Pelvic examination revealed complete procidentia with impacted pessary and a 2  x 2 cm ulcer without any exudate. An attempt to remove the pessary is unsuccessful. Biopsies of the ulcer have been obtained. Which of the following is the appropriate initial management?

A) Vaginal Estrogen

B) Oral Antibiotics

C) Surgical removal of Pessary

D) Hysterectomy

E) Admit for parenteral antibiotics

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