Archer USMLE Step 3 CCS – HighYield Sample Videos

Here are samples from highly subscribed Archer USMLE Step 3 CCS strategies and high-yield CCS case protocols and demonstrations from https://ArcherReview.com . All case demonstrations during live sessions are on official USMLE exam software to give you hands-on experience with USMLE STEP 3 EXAM Software. Please realize that these strategies of diagnosis, monitoring, sequencing and timing are extremely crucial to get high performance on Step 3 CCS.

Interactive software like UWorld CCS does not teach the strategy to excel on the exam software, misses several highyield steps, does not respect the simulated time when orders are placed and therefore, is not an exact replica of your exam software. UWORLD CCS is not designed to change response based on your input unlike your Exam software. Therefore, you are left without a clue if you are optimal or unnecessarily invasive or being scored optimally for your actions.. This is one reason why several students get poor performance on their Step 3 CCS component despite practicing UWorld software several times. The following video will prove how different and responsive your EXAM software is!

Please go over above sample to see how intelligent your Exam software is and changes it’s response based on your input. In Archer CCS workshops, some important points are repeatedly applied in various case scenarios so the attendees can retain the subject better – please note these are from Live session. This video shows some case demos and few strategies. Please note that this sample does not include highly popular hundreds of Archer CCS strategies and highyield case demonstrations.

To access and subscribe to ARCHER CCS STRATEGIES AND WORKSHOPS with many more important CCS strategies, High-Yield cases, including on-demand videos of 2018 CCS workshops, please visit @ https://ArcherReview.com or @ http://www.ccsworkshop.com/Pay_Per_View.html
Available both Live and On-demand (PPV)

 

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USMLE Step 3 Question #487

487) 57-year-old male with a history of mild COPD has been using albuterol as needed to manage his COPD without any other maintenance medications. Recently he has been experiencing a greater degree of shortness of breath, wheezing and a productive cough. Pulmonary function tests demonstrate a FEV1 that is 60% of predicted. What is the next best step for management of his COPD?

A. Add budesonide to treatment regimen

B. Add rofilumast to treatment regimen

C. Add tiotropium to treatment regimen

D. Add tiotropium plus fluticasone to treatment regimen

E. Add carbocystine to treatment regimen

 

Question of the Week # 190

190) A 45 year old man presents to your office for follow up of his dyslipidemia that was diagnosed 6 month. His lipid panel at that time was consistent with high Total cholesterol , Low HDL and high triglyceride levels. He was instructed on dietary modification. He presents for a follow up visit today and reports that he had been strictly compliant with reduced fat diet. His social history is significant for smoking 1 pack per day for the past 25 years . He reports drinking about 1 pint vodka per day for past 10 years. He read on an online magazine  that drinking alcohol would boost his “Good” cholesterol. At this time, a repeat fasting lipid profile reveals:

Total Cholesterol : 250mg%

HDL cholesterol : 35mg%

Triglycerides: 500mg%

The most important step at this time to address his lipid abnormalities:

A) Niacin

B) Gemfibrozil

C) Fenofibrate

D) Alcohol cessation

E) Smoking cessation

Question of the Week # 189

189) A 38 year old woman presents for follow up visit of right leg weakness. Her history is significant for episodes of diplopia and right sided weakness that recurred thrice in the last 3 months. These presentations were also associated with concomitant urinary incontinence and ataxia. Her most recent hospitalization for such an episode was three weeks ago. She was discharged after her symptoms improved upon using intravenous steroids. An MRI brain taken during the initial episode revealed multiple white matter lesions in the peri-ventricular area. Today, she feels well except for minimal weakness in her right leg. Most appropriate drug that should be administered to this patient to reduce the frequency and severity of these recurrences?

A) Methyl dopa

B) Interferon Beta

C) Methyl Prednisolone

D) Interferon Alpha

E) Intravenos Immunoglobulin ( IVIG)

Question of the Week # 188

188) A 24 year old woman is evaluated for a history of chronic anemia. Her history is significant for anemia for the past 7 years. She has been treated with oral iron supplements in the past with out any response. She denies any  gastrointestinal bleeding. Her menstrual cycle is 3 days in duration and her menses have been scant for the past 5 years. There is no family history of anemia or bleeding disorder or cancer. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations reveal :

Hemoglobin : 10.6gm%

MCV: 68fl ( normal 80 to 100)

WBC : 8.8K/μl

Platelets: 230k/μl

Red Cell Distribution Width : 12.8% ( 10.2 to 14.5%)

Reticulocyte count : 6% ( normal 0.5% to 1.5%)

Which of the following are most helpful in diagnosing this patient’s anemia?

A) Serum ferritin

B) Bone marrow biopsy

C) Direct Coombs’ test

D) Hemoglobin Electrophoresis

E)  Anti-endomysial antibodies

Question of the Week # 187

187) A 34 year old obese man presents with complaints of cough of 3 months’ duration. His cough is non-productive and occurs daily. It is worse in the night. He also reports a need to clear his throat constantly. He denies any nasal congestion. He denies smoking or alcohol. He also reports a chronic history of heart burn for which he uses over the counter antacids intermittently. He works as a nurse in a health care facility. He denies any fever or night sweats or weightloss. On examination, throat is normal in appearance with out any exudate or eythema. Lungs are clear to auscultation. A Chest X-ray is normal. The most appropriate initial diagnostic step in evaluating his cough is :

A) Tuberculin skin test

B) Methacholine challenge

C) Albuterol trial

D) Omeprazole trial

E) 24 Hour esophageal  pH monitoring

Question of the Week # 186

186) A 65 year old woman is evaluated in your office for lower extremity swelling and weakness. She has difficulty speaking for the past 3 months. Her past medical history is significant for renal insufficiency and hypertension that was diagnosed 6 months ago. A TSH level that was obtained 3 weeks ago was normal. She smokes cigarettes, about 1 pack per day for the past 35 years. Her medications include Lisinopril and Hydrochlorthiazide. On physical examination, her heart rate and rhythm are regular. Lungs are clear to auscultation. She has gross edema of the lower extremities. There is no extremity weakness. Head and neck examination reveals findings as shown below:

Most appropriate next step in management of this patient:

A) Stop Lisinopril

B) Start Levothyroxine

C) Intubation

D) Abdominal fat pad biopsy

E) Serum immunoelectrophoresis

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